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QUESTION 46
Which two statements about both FCIP and iSCSI are correct? (Choose two.)
A. They support file-level storage for remote devices.
B. They require high throughput with low latency and low jitter.
C. Their purpose is to provide connectivity between host and storage.
D. They support block-level storage for remote devices.
E. Their purpose is to provide connectivity between separate wide-area SANs.

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
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Explanation:
QUESTION 47
Which three statements about zoning are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Zoning increases security.
B. DNS queries are used for software zoning.
C. Software zoning is more secure than hardware zoning.
D. When using zones and VSANs together, the zone is created first.
E. Zoning requires that VSANs be established before it becomes operational.

Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 48
What are two characteristics of Server Load Balancing router mode? (Choose two.)
A. The design supports multiple server subnets.
B. An end-user sees the IP address of the real server.
C. SLB routes between the outside and inside subnets.
D. The source or destination MAC address is rewritten, but the IP addresses left alone.
E. SLB acts as a “bump in the wire” between servers and upstream firewall or Layer 3 devices.

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 49
What are two characteristics of Cisco Global Site Selector? (Choose two.)
A. It helps verify end-to-end path availability.
B. It provides traffic rerouting in case of disaster.
C. HSRP, GLBP, and VRRP can be clients of GSS.
D. BGP must be the routing protocol between the distributed data centers.
E. DNS responsiveness is improved by providing centralized domain management. “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 20 Cisco 642-874 Exam

Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 50
Which three statements about firewall modes are correct? (Choose three.)
A. A firewall in routed mode has one IP address.
B. A firewall in transparent mode has one IP address.
C. In routed mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 2 device.
D. In routed mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 3 device.
E. In transparent mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 2 device.
F. In transparent mode, the firewall is considered to be a Layer 3 device.

Correct Answer: BDE Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 51
Which two of these correctly describe asymmetric routing and firewalls? (Choose two.)
A. only operational in routed mode
B. only operational in transparent mode
C. only eight interfaces can belong to an asymmetric routing group
D. operational in both failover and non-failover configurations
E. only operational when the firewall has been configured for failover

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 52
Which of the following two statements about Cisco NSF and SSO are the most relevant to the network designer? (Choose two.)
A. You can reduce outages to 1 to 3 seconds by using SSO in a Layer 2 environment or Cisco NSF with SSO in a Layer 3 environment.
B. SSO and NSF each require the devices to either be graceful restart-capable or graceful restart- “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 21 Cisco 642-874 Exam aware.
C. In a fully redundant topology adding redundant supervisors with NSF and SSO may cause longer convergence times than single supervisors with tuned IGP timers
D. The primary deployment scenario for Cisco NSF with SSO is in the Distribution and Core layers.
E. Cisco NSF-aware neighbor relationships are independent of any tuned IGP timers

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 53
Refer to the exhibit.

Which of the following two are advantages of Server virtualization using VMware vSphere? (Choose two)
A. Retains the one-to-one relationship between switch ports and functional servers
B. Enables the live migration of a virtual server from one physical server to another without disruption to users or loss of services
C. The access layer of the network moves into the vSphere ESX servers, providing streamlined vSphere management “Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 22 Cisco 642-874 Exam
D. Provides management functions including the ability to run scripts and to install third-party agents for hardware monitoring, backup, or systems management
E. New functional servers can be deployed with minimal physical changes on the network

Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 54
Which of the following two are effective and simple means of employing route summarization within the Enterprise Campus network? (Choose two)
A. A default route (0.0.0.0 /0) advertised dynamically into the rest of the network
B. Route filtering to manage traffic flows in the network, avoid inappropriate transit traffic through remote nodes, and provide a defense against inaccurate or inappropriate routing updates
C. Use manual split horizon
D. Use a structured hierarchical topology to control the propagation of EIGRP queries
E. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) stub areas
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation

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QUESTION 55
From a design perspective which two of the following OSPF statements are most relevant? (Choose two)
A. OSPF stub areas can be thought of as a simple form of summarization
B. OSPF cannot filter intra-area routes
C. An ABR can only exist in two areas – the backbone and one adjacent area
D. Performance issues in the Backbone area can be offset by allowing some traffic to transit a non-backbone area
E. The size of an area (the LSDB) will be constrained by the size of the IP MTU

Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 56
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 23 Cisco 642-874 Exam OSPF stub areas are an important tool for the Network designer; which of the following two should be considered when utilizing OSPF stub areas? (Choose two)
A. OSPF stub areas increase the size of the LSDB with the addition of Type 3 and 5 LSAs
B. OSPF not so stubby areas are particularly useful as a simpler form of summarization
C. OSPF stub areas are always insulated from external changes
D. OSPF totally stubby areas cannot distinguish among ABRs for the best route to destinations outside the area
E. OSPF stub areas can distinguish among ASBRs for destinations that are external to the OSPF domain

Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 57
Which two protocol characteristics should be most considered when designing a single unified fabric for the Data Center? (Choose two.)
A. FCIP or FCoE allow for easier integration by using the Fibre Channel Protocol (FCP) and Fibre Channel framing
B. iSCSI uses a special EtherType and an additional header containing additional control information
C. FCIP and iSCSI has higher overhead than FCoE owing to TCP/IP
D. FCoE was initially developed to be used as a switch-to-switch protocol, while FCIP is primarily meant to be used as an access layer protocol to connect hosts and storage to a Fibre Channel SAN
E. FCoE requires gateway functionality to integrate into an existing Fibre Channel network

Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 58
DRAG DROP

“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 24 Cisco 642-874 Exam
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
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Explanation: Enable specifically at the network edge >STP Manually prune unused VLANs >Trunks Use specifically on fiber-optic interconnections that link switches >UDLD Ensure that an individual link failure will not result in an STP failure >Etherchannel Always use a number of links that is a power of 2 (2, 4, 8) to optimize the load balancing of traffic> VSS
QUESTION 59
DRAG DROP

A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
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Explanation: Static, with no inherent failover or load balancing mechanism >Static RP Dynamic, utilizing RP mapping agents with dense mode flooding >Auto-RP
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – www.actualtests.com 25 Cisco 642-874 Exam
Static, with fault tolerance utilizing with the Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP)> Anycast RP Dynamic, utilizing link-local multicast messages which are flooded hop by hop >BSR
QUESTION 60
DRAG DROP
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 61
DRAG DROP
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A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
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QUESTION 62

DRAG DROP
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A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: Section: (none) Explanation
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