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QUESTION 116
There are three different roles on the MDS: Role1 allows show commands only. Role2 allows debug and configure commands, and denies show command. Role 3 permits VSAN 10-30 only. User1 belongs to Role1, Role2 and Role3. What can User1 do?
A. Show, debug, configure on all VSAN
B. Debug and configure commands only on all VSAN
C. Debug and configuration commands on VSAN 10-30
D. Show, debug, and configure on VSAN 10-30
E. Show, debug, configure and save configuration on VSAN 10-30
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 117
Read only zones on MDS switches are implemented using: A. SCSI I/O operation type
B. LUN masking
C. LUN mapping
D. LUN binding
E. LUN trespass

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 118
What is true about MDS FCIP Profiles?
A. The Profile IDs must match the FCIP interface ID.
B. Only one FCIP Interface per profile.
C. FCIP profile contains the assigned IP address to which it is bound.
D. FCIP profile is not required if only one FCIP interface is used.
E. FCIP Profile is assigned to a GiGE interface.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 119
What selection below lists the architectural levels of the Fibre Channel protocol in order from the lowest level to highest level?
A. Physical Interface, Data Link, Network, Common Services, Upper Layer Protocol
B. Physical Interface, Encode/Decode and Device Control, Network, Transport, Upper Layer Protocol
C. Physical Interface, Data Link, Network, Transport, Presentation
D. Physical Interface, Encode/Decode and Link Control, Framing Protocol, Common Services, Protocol Mappings, Upper Layer Protocol
E. Physical Interface, Encode/Decode and Link Control, Framing Protocol, Common Services, Protocol Mappings, Fibre Channel Protocol

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 120
What standard association is working in the definition of the iSCSI and Fibre Channel protocols respectively?
A. SNIA, IETF
B. FCIA, IETF
C. IETF, ANSI
D. FCIA, SNIA
E. SNIA, T11
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 121
Which steps are required to downgrade Fabric Manager Server to an earlier or previous release?
A. In FM use the “Revert” tab under “Server Admin” to initiate downgrade to previous release
B. Delete the “.cisco_mds9000” and restore earlier version from automatically created “mds_backup” directory
C. Fabric Manager Server cannot be downgraded to an earlier release
D. Close all instances of FM/DM, run the “Uninstall” program, then re-install the previous release
E. Downgrade the MDS switch to the correct version of code; when Fabric Manger is opened it will automatically downgrade to the earlier version located on the MDS
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 122
MDS Interop mode 2 will interoperate with what legacy Fibre Channel switch below?
A. Brocade 12000 core PID mode 1
B. Brocade 3800 core PID mode 0
C. Inrange FC/9000
D. McData 3900
E. Qlogic Sanbox

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 123
Which are functions of the Domain Identifier Assigned (DIA) ILS?
A. It indicates that a Principal Switch has been selected, and that the upstream neighbor Switch has been assigned a Domain Identifier.
B. It indicates that the receiving Switch can proceed requesting a Domain Identifier.
C. It indicates that the principal switch selection and address assignment phase is completed and the fabric is operational.
D. It indicates that the principal switch selection is started, but a principal switch has not been identified yet.
E. It indicates that a Request Domain Identifier ILS has been received by principal switch.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 124
To ensure FCID persistency is persistent , what needs to be configured?
A. Static VSAN ID
B. Static port ID
C. Static FC_ID
D. Static port map
E. Static Domain ID

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 125
With FC-SP, when an “Initiator” sends a “AUTH Negotiate” the “Responder” replies with?
A. DHCHAP Success
B. DHCHAP Negotiate
C. AUTH Negotiate
D. DHCHAP Challenge
E. AUTH Access Request
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 126
Which are true statements about the Receiver_Transmitter timeout value (R_T_TOV)?
A. It is a timer, by default 100ms, used by the receiver logic to detect Loss-of-Synchronization.
B. It is a timer, by default 100ms, used for detecting a protocol error condition.
C. It is a timer equal to 2 X E_D_TOV that is used as the timeout value for determining when to reinstate a Recovery_Qualifier.
D. It is a value for the R_T_TOV is negotiated between the N_Port and the Fabric, during the Fabric Login as one of the Common Service Parameters exchanged.
E. It is used to time events occurring on a single link.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 127
What is NOT a capability of RBAC in the MDS?
A. Define roles with specific allowed commands to be executed by users within these roles
B. Allowed to synchronize to a RADIUS server for user access and authentication
C. To define roles on a per VSAN basis
D. Have three define roles and operations access created (Security Administrator, SAN Administrator and SAN Operator)
E. Create rules for commands on a physical port level

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 128
Which conditions must exist for a FICON-enabled VSAN with a CUP device on an MDS 9509 switch, assuming that fibre channel zones are not used to control access to FICON-attached devices?
A. Fabric binding
B. Default zone permit
C. In-order delivery of frames
D. CUP resides in a zone in the active zoneset.
E. Source_ID/Destination_ID/Exchange_ID load balancing

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 129
What are the 3 types of Ordered Sets defined in Fibre Channel?
A. Offline sequence, online sequence, and link reset
B. Start of frame, end of frame, and idle
C. Frame delimiters, primitive signals, and primitive sequences
D. K28.5, D16.0, and D31.2
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 130
A customer has an existing production fabric with Brocade and McData FC switches intermixed. When adding an MDS 9000 switch, what MDS interop mode would be required? (Topology: McData 6400 – (ISL)

Brocade12000 – (ISL) — MDS)

A.
Open Fabric Mode

B.
Native

C.
Interop 1

D.
Interop 2

E.
Interop 3
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 131
Which are effects of a Build Fabric (BF) ILS?
A. The BF causes a disruptive reconfiguration of the fabric.
B. The BF causes a non-disruptive reconfiguration of the fabric.
C. The BF causes a new principal switch selection to happen.
D. The BF causes the change of all the addresses assigned in the fabric while holding data traffic, to avoid traffic loss.
E. The BF helps to resolve overlapping domain identifiers.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 132
FCanalyzer is recommended for use with which types of captures?
A. FC frames from initiator to target
B. FC frames from initiator to FC switch
C. Class F frames from FC switch to FC switch
D. Used with SPAN function to capture FC Frames
E. Can be used to send captured frames remotely out the management 10/100 interface for ethereal.

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 133
When using IVR traversing a FCIP link, what is not required?
A. Transit VSAN over FCIP link
B. Two or more VSANs in configuration
C. InterVSAN zoneset active for host to access storage
D. Border switch will be member of at least two VSANs

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 134
What type of ordered set is sent to indicate a condition or state exists in Fibre Channel protocol?
A. Arbitrate Signals
B. K28.5
C. Primitive Signals
D. Primitive Sequence
E. Fill words

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 135
When adding a iSCSI initiator, what is the minimum that must be configured when using iSCSI proxy initiator mode?
A. Zone changes must be done to add new iSCSI initiator’s pWWN.
B. A new VSAN must be created to add iSCSI initiator.
C. The iSCSI initiator must be added with the ip address of the new iSCSI initiator.
D. The iSCSI virtual target must be created to permit access for the new iSCSI initiator.
E. LUN masking on the storage array must be changed to allow the new iSCSI initiator pWWN to access LUN.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 136
A switch boot failure can be caused by a corrupted image or corrupted bootflash file system. In the event of a corrupted bootflash filesystem which steps could be used to access BIOS so the system could be booted via TFTP?
A. Interrupt the boot sequence by pressing “ctrl ]” or ESC to enter BIOS setup.
B. Interrupt the boot sequence by pressing “ctrl X” to enter BIOS setup
C. Interrupt the boot sequence by pressing “ctrl C” to enter BIOS setup
D. Interrupt the boot sequence by pressing “ctrl C” to access switch(boot)# prompt
E. Supervisor cannot recover from corrupted bootflash. The card must be replaced.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 137
What is FALSE about traffic shaping implemented by the MDS 9000 FCIP TCP stack?
A. It uses variable rate, per-flow shaping when sending data.
B. Traffic shaping is particularly useful in conjunction with compression because it paces the flow of compressed data on the wire reacting to different per-packet compression rates.
C. If the FCIP path has a Gigabit or more of dedicated bandwidth available, then shaping is not required.
D. Traffic shaping is always required, regardless of the bandwidth available on the FCIP path.
E. The shaper works by sending packets at a rate that is consumable by the downstream network, based on the configured minimum and maximum bandwidth parameters.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 138
On a standalone switch, all ports in VSAN 9 are administratively shut down. What is the operational state of VSAN 9?
A. Initializing
B. Up
C. Suspended
D. Active
E. Down

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 139
During principal switch selection and the domain ID assignment, all frames are flooded to a destination ID of this well known fibre channel address:
A. FF.FF.FA
B. FF.FF.FB
C. FF.FF.FC
D. FF.FF.FD
E. FF.FF.FE
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 140
A reason for persistent binding to be enabled on an HBA is to provide what benefit?
A. To prevent other hosts from accessing a specific target
B. To configure a user specified PWWN to the HBA
C. To assign the same SCSI target ID to a storage device’s PWWN
D. To allocate the same FCID to a fibre channel device
E. To allocate the same domain ID to a switch in a VSAN
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 141
Hosts and storage are connected to 2 MDS units interconnected by ISLs in the following manner: FCID Initiator/Target MDS VSAN Zone 0x01000a Initiator 1 A 0x01000b Target 1 B 0x01000c Initiator 2 A 0x02000a Target 2 1 A 0x02000b Initiator 2 1 B 0x02000c Target 1 2 A All default zones are set to deny and IVR is not enabled. Trunking is disabled on all of the ISLs, which reside in VSAN 1. How many pairs of source-destination flows are possible over the ISLs in this configuration?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 142
Which statements are true about a cascaded FICON topology?
A. It requires Fabric binding to be configured in all the switches.
B. Only one hop (ie: traversing 2 switches) is supported.
C. Separate ISLs must be dedicated to FICON traffic .
D. Two-byte link addressing is mandatory.
E. Persistent FCIDs must be enabled.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 143
What method is used to assign a pWWN to a dynamically assigned iSCSI initiator in a MDS?
A. Assigned by system
B. Assigned by user in the configuration of the iSCSI Target
C. Assigned by iSCSI host
D. Created with iSCSI host name, iSCSI driver and Connection ID
E. Assigned by Fibre Channel attached Storage System

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 144
A “system initialization” is used to perform what function on the MDS switch?
A. Recover lost “admin” password
B. Restart supervisor module after maintenance testing.
C. Format the bootflash and erases configuration files
D. Prepare standby supervisor module for system upgrade.
E. Compress existing files and restart the bootflash file system

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 145
FICON-enabled hosts send a Query Security Attribute (QSA) extended link service command to the well known Fibre Channel Service address of:
A. FF.FF.FA
B. FF.FF.FD
C. FF.FF.FC
D. FF.FF.FE
E. FF.FF.F7

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 146
Which prerequisites must be configured before enabling FICON?
A. Fabric Binding Persistent FCID Static Domain ID
B. Fabric Binding Static Domain ID
C. Fabric Binding In Order Delivery Static Domain ID
D. Static Domain ID In Order Delivery
E. Persistent FCID Static Domain ID

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 147
You currently have a Solaris host that is accessing a JBOD that is connected to the same switch. The Solaris host is logging I/O errors with writes to the JBOD. You want to find out the cause of the I/O errors by analyzing the traffic between the host and the JBOD. To do this you setup FCAnalyzer to run locally on the switch. However, when you setup FCAnalyzer to capture traffic you do not see any traffic between the host and the JBOD. What is a possible cause?
A. Only FCAnalyzer remote can capture traffic between 2 device ports.
B. The source and/or destination of the FCAnalyzer traffic was not defined.
C. The FCanalyzer can only capture control traffic and not data traffic.
D. The FCanalyzer is not used for capturing traffic.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 148
What statement regarding zoneset distribution on a MDS switch is true?
A. By default, interop mode 1, zoneset databases are only distributed between MDS switches.
B. Zoneset distribution (full or active) is configured on a per switch basis.
C. All Cisco MDS 9000 switches distribute active zone sets when new E port links come up or when a new zone set is activated in a VSAN.
D. The “zoneset distribute all” command distributes the full zoneset along with the active zone set.
E. All of the above

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 149
What is the correct order (from lowest to highest) of the layers of the Fibre Channel protocol? 1 = Physical 2 = Mapping to ULP 3 = Common Services 4 = Signaling Protocol 5 = Encoding/decoding
A. 1,5,4,3,2
B. 1,4,5,3,2
C. 1,4,5,2,3
D. 1,3,4,5,2
E. 1,5,2,3,4

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 150
Two switches are merging together. During principal switch selection, Switch A sends a frame indicating it
has an empty domain ID list. Switch B sends a frame indicating that there are previously allocated domain
IDs. Switch A has a lower priority value and a lower WWN.
What should occur next?

A. Switch A becomes principal switch and initiates a BF.
B. Switch A becomes the principal switch and initiates a RCF.
C. Switch A uses the values it received from Switch B for the currently elected principal switch.
D. Switch A isolates and remains a standalone switch.
E. Not enough information is given.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 151
role name guest description Guest User Role rule 1 deny config rule 2 deny exec rule 3 permit config feature zone rule 4 permit config feature zoneset rule 5 permit show rule 6 permit exec feature fcping rule 7 permit exec feature fctrace rule 8 permit exec feature ips rule 9 permit exec feature discover rule 10 permit config feature ivr rule 11 permit config feature ficon rule 12 permit config feature fcip rule 13 permit config feature in-order-guarantee rule 14 permit config feature interface rule 15 permit exec feature ping rule 16 permit config feature vsan vsan policy deny permit vsan 10-19 What CLI command function will be permitted by the role name “guest”?
A. creation of vsan 12
B. copy running-config to startup-config
C. enable TACACS+
D. creation of port-channels
E. change interface mode from auto to F

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 152
Before you can successfully enable the Call Home feature, which of the following must be true?
A. snmp-server contact name defined
B. callhome site-id defined
C. Enterprise license installed
D. callhome transport email smtp-server defined
E. snmp-server location defined

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 153
FC1/1 is a member of VSAN 1. After the command “no VSAN 1” is entered, FC1/1 will be a member of what VSAN?
A. VSAN 4094
B. VSAN 1
C. VSAN 4095
D. VSAN 4093
E. VSAN 0

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 154
A Host has just been implicitly logged off a Fabric. Which are the possible primitive sequences that the host either transmitted or received?
A. NOS
B. OLS
C. LR
D. LRR
E. LIP

Correct Answer: AB

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Cisco 350-040 Vce Files, New Release Cisco 350-040 Exam Questions And Answers UP To 50% Off