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QUESTION 60
Which of these SCSI commands returns a list of logical unit numbers to which additional commands may be issued?
A. Read Capacity
B. Test Unit Ready
C. Report LUNs
D. Read
E. Inquiry

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
Which of these SCSI commands is used to determine the device type of a particular logical unit, and also may include basic information about implemented options and the device product name?
A. Read Capacity
B. Test Unit Ready
C. Report LUNs PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-040
D. Read
E. Inquiry
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 62
Which one of these statements is true of the iSCSI initiator task tag?
A. The initiator assigns a task tag to each task it issues.
B. The target assigns a task tag on behalf of the initiator.
C. During the life of the task, this tag does not have to be unique.
D. SCSI may not use this tag as part of the SCSI task identifier.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 63
SAN Extension Tuner is used to test and tune the performance of an FCIP link. Which of these correctly identifies the requirements of SAN Extension Tuner?
A. The SAN_EXTN_OVER_IP license must work; there must be two IPS modules; there must be a FCIP link between the Cisco MDS switches; there must be one unused Gigabit Ethernet port per switch to act as a initiator or target; the physical layer of the second Gigabit Ethernet port should be up; san-ext-tuner must be enabled on both MDS switches.
B. There must be two Cisco MDS switches with IPS modules; there must be two unused Gigabit Ethernet ports per switch to act as initiators or targets; iSCSI must be enabled on the initator Cisco MDS switch;
All Gigabit Ethernet ports should be up; san-ext-tuner must be enabled on both MDS switches.
C. The SAN_EXTN_OVER_IP license must work; there must be two IPS modules; there must be an FCIP link between the switches; there must be one unused Gigabit Ethernet port per switch to act as a initiator or target; the physical layer of the second Gigabit Ethernet port should be up; iSCSI must be enabled on both switches; san-ext-tuner must be enabled.
D. There must be two Cisco MDS switches with IPS modules; san-ext-tuner must be enabled on both MDS switches. there must be one unused Gigabit Ethernet port per switch to act as a initiator or target; iSCSI must be enabled on the target; there must be a Cisco MDS switch; All Gigabit Ethernet ports should be up; san-ext-tuner must be enabled on both MDS switches.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
Which of these configuration commands are correct to set up SAN Extension Tuner?
A. mds# san-ext-tuner mds(san-ext)# nwwN 10:11:00:00:00:00:00:00 mds(san-ext)# nport pWWN 20:22:00:00:00:00:00:01 vsan 1000 interface gigabitethernet 1/2 PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-040 mds(san-ext-nport)# end
B. mds(config)# san-ext-tuner mds(config-san-ext)# nwwN 10:11:22:33:00:00:00:00 mds(config-san-ext)# nport pWWN 20:22:33:33:00:00:00:01 vsan 1500 interface gigabitethernet 1/2 mds(config-san-ext-nport)# end
C. mds(config)# san-ext-tuner mds(config-san-ext)# nwwN 10:11:22:33:44:00:00:00 mds(config-san-ext)# nport pWWN 20:22:33:33:44:00:00:01 vsan 4096 interface gigabitethernet 1/2 mds(config-san-ext-nport)# end
D. mds(config)# san-ext-tuner mds(config-san-ext)# pWWN 20:22:33:33:44:55:66:01 mds(config-san-ext)# nport pWWN 20:22:33:33:44:55:66:01 vsan 1222 interface gigabitethernet 1/2 mds(config-san-ext-nport)# end
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
On which two Cisco MDS modules is the IP Network Simulator tool supported? (Choose two.)
A. DS-X9304-SMIP , 4-port 1 GE IP storage services module
B. DS-X9308-SMIP, 8-port 1 GE IP storage services module
C. DS-X9302-14K9, 14+2 multiprotocol services module
D. DC-9222i-184k9, module 1
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 66
What is the maximum number of iSCSI and iSLB initiators and targets supported by a fabric?
A. 3000, 3000
B. 4000, 5000
C. 6000, 2000
D. 2000, 6000
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 67
SAN Extension Tuner requires which license feature?
A. SAN-EXTN_OVER_IP
B. ENTERPRISE_PKG PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-040
C. STORAGE_SERVCIES_ENABLER_PKG
D. MAINFRAME_PKG
E. STORAGE_SERVICES_ENABLER_PKG

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 68
Which of these statements about the Cisco MDS SAN-OS FCIP Tape Acceleration feature is correct?
A. Cisco MDS SAN-OS provides only Tape Write Acceleration.
B. After receiving all the data, the host side FCIP Tape Acceleration-enabled switch proxies the successful completion of the SCSI WRITE operation.
C. Cisco MDS SAN-OS provides increased performance of data delivery to the remote FCIP-connected tape drives by using UDP over the WAN.
D. FCIP Tape Acceleration can be used with multi-link port channels if the port channels are constructed with channel mode = off.
E. WRITE FILEMARKS operations are proxied by the host side FCIP Tape Acceleration-enabled switch.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
What is the most appropriate mode of compression for an E3 WAN link?
A. mode high
B. mode medium
C. mode low
D. mode 1
E. mode 2

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 70
Which of these statements about SAN Extension Tuner is correct?
A. The SET configuration is persistent across reboots.
B. The virtual N_Ports created will register FC4 features supported with the name server.
C. Only SCSI read and write commands are implemented.
D. SET cannot be used if iSCSI is enabled.
E. The data pattern used for the data generated between the virtual N_Ports can either be an all-zeros pattern or all-ones pattern; no other data patterns can be used.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 71
What are the proper steps to enable a Cisco MDS switch to interoperate with a McDATA legacy switch running in McDATA Fabric 1.0 mode?
A. – suspend the VSAN you will be using
-change the interop mode on the VSAN to interop mode 4
-create a unique VSAN WWN for the VSAN that contains the McDATA OUI
-change the domain ID to be a static decimal number within the range of 1-31
-unsuspend the VSAN
B. – suspend the VSAN you will be using

change the domain ID to be a static decimal number within the range of 97-127


change the interop mode on the VSAN to interop mode 1

-create a unique VSAN WWN using the McDATA OUI
-unsuspend the VSAN
C. – change the interop mode on the VSAN to interop mode 4
-create a unique VSAN WWN using the McDATA OUI
-change the domain ID to be a static decimal number within the range of 1-31
-restart the domain disruptively
D. – create a unique VSAN WWN using the McDATA OUI

change the interop mode on the vsan to interop mode McDATA


change the domain ID to be a static decimal number within the range of 97-127

-restart the domain disruptively

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 72
Which of these features is supported by the Cisco MDS SAN-OS IPsec feature?
A. Authentication Header (AH)
B. transport mode
C. security association bundling
D. the per-host security association option in a crypto map
E. AES with 128- or 256-bits encryption using Cipher Block Chaining or counter mode

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 73
What zoning option is valid in interop modes 2 and 3 with a mixed-vendor fabric?
A. LUN zoning
B. nWWN
C. FC-ID
D. domain/port PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-040
E. sWWN
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 74
An FC-ID of 0x620000 is a valid FC-ID in in which four interop modes? (Choose four.)
A. interop mode 4
B. interop mode 1
C. interop mode 3
D. interop mode 0
E. interop mode 2
F. interop mode 5
Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 75
Cisco MDS interop mode 4 will interoperate with which two legacy Fibre Channel switches? (Choose two.)
A. McDATA 6140
B. Brocade 3800 core PID mode 0
C. Qlogic SANbox
D. Brocade 12000 core PID mode 1
E. Brocade Mi10k

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 76
A Brocade 12000 in its native corePID mode (1) is connected to VSAN 100 on a Cisco MDS. What is the correct output of the show vsan 100 command?
A. vsan 100 information name:VSAN100 state:active interoperability mode:default loadbalancing:src-id/ dst-id/oxid operational state:up
B. vsan 100 information name:VSAN100 state:active interoperability mode:1 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/ oxid operational state:up
C. vsan 100 information name:VSAN100 state:active interoperability mode:2 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/ oxid operational state:up
D. vsan 100 information name:VSAN100 state:active interoperability mode:3 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/ oxid operational state:up
E. vsan 100 information name:VSAN100 state:active interoperability mode:Brocade Native loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 77
A customer has an existing production fabric with McDATA and Brocade Fibre Channel switches intermixed. When adding a Cisco MDS 9000 switch, what interop mode would be required? Topology: Brocade12000 -ISL- McData6140 -ISL- MDS
A. interop mode 1
B. interop mode 2
C. interop mode 3
D. interop mode 4
E. open fabric mode

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 78
The Virtual Channel flow control feature may have to be disabled and B2B flow control enabled when attaching to a switch produced by which of these vendors?
A. Vixel
B. McDATA
C. Qlogic
D. Brocade
E. InRange
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 79
Which of these statements about ISL flow control in interop mode 2 are correct?
A. Brocade uses a proprietary flow control called Fair Channel flow control.
B. When an ISL between an Cisco MDS 9000 switch and Brocade switch comes up, the ISL negotiates for the standards-based buffer-to-buffer flow control during ESC.
C. Cisco MDS uses a proprietary flow control called Enhanced BB.
D. To enable Brocade to accept standards-based flow control use the portcfgislmode command.
E. To enable Brocade to accept standards-based flow control use the portcfgbbmode command.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 80
Which of these statements about domain IDs are correct when running in interop mode 4?
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-040
A. A McDATA switch refers to domain IDs in the range of 1 to 32.
B. FC-IDs are used within the range 97 to 128, with an offset of 96.
C. If a static domain ID is configured on the MDS switch, it must be in the range 1 to 31 for the interop mode 4 VSAN.
D. On Cisco MDS switches, persistent FC-IDs must be configured in the range 97 to 128.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 81
The SAN Device Virtualization feature virtualizes which two of these? (Choose two.)
A. an initiator
B. a LUN
C. a switch
D. a fabric
E. a target

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 82
What is Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol designed to accomplish?
A. eliminate the single point of failure inherent in static default routed environments
B. provide high availability for Fibre Channel over IP traffic
C. provide support for IPv6
D. reduce the amount of configuration needed for dynamic routing or router discovery protocols

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 83
Which two statements about Fibre Channel over TCP/IP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Each connection request is made to Port 3225 or a configured port.
B. Each connection request is made to Port 3260 or a configured port.
C. It uses TCP window management and a sliding window for flow control.
D. A special frame is always used to identify the peers.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 84
Which three statements about FCIP Tape Acceleration are correct? (Choose three.)
A. It enables time stamp control on an FCIP interface. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-040
B. Cisco MDS switches proxy transfer ready signals to the hosts to start sending data.
C. It uses TCP window management and a sliding window for flow control.
D. It reduces the processing time for each IO by 2 RTT.
E. It increases tape backup speed by compressing data.
Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 85
Which three statements about the TCP/IP flow control mechanism are true? (Choose three.)
A. TCP uses a sliding window to control the flow of data end-to-end.
B. The TCP Maximum Window Size (MWS) is the maximum number of frames the sender will allow to be outstanding at one time without an acknowledgment.
C. The TCP Maximum Window Size (MWS) is the maximum number of bytes the sender will allow to be outstanding at one time without an acknowledgment.
D. The maximum allowed window size is 1 GB.
E. The maximum allowed window size is 1024 frames.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 86
Which of these statements about Storage Media Encryption is correct?
A. The initiator and target must both be plugged into ports on an MSM-18/4 module or modules for SME to work.
B. The target must be plugged into one of the ports on an MSM-18/4 module for SME to work.
C. The initiator must be plugged into one of the ports on an MSM-18/4 module for SME to work.
D. Neither the target nor initiator need to be plugged into one of the ports on an MSM-18/4 module or modules for SME to work.
E. Both the target and initiator need to be plugged into ports on the same MSM-18/4 module for SME to work.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 87
One of your customers has a Cisco MDS 9222i with an MSM-18/4 module in the second slot. The customer’s tape drive is plugged into fc1/4 and its media server is plugged into fc2/4. Which two of these are correct ways to configure the SME interface? (Choose two.)
A. switch# config t switch(config)# interface sme 1/4 switch(config)# no shut
B. switch# config t PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-040 switch(config)# interface sme 2/4 switch(config)# no shut
C. switch# config t switch(config)# interface sme 1/1 switch(config)# no shut
D. switch# config t switch(config)# interface sme 2/1 switch(config)# no shut
E. switch# config t switch(config)# interface sme host fc2/4 target fc1/4 switch(config)# no shut
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 88
Which two of these statements regarding SCSI Device Virtualization (SDV) are correct? (Choose two.)
A. You must create two zones, one for all the real devices and one for all the virtual devices.
B. A virtual device is identified by a name of up to 32 characters and defines all the real devices, both primary and secondary, that it represents.
C. When using SDV, pWWN zoning must also be used.
D. When you enable SDV, Cisco Fabric Services distribution is also enabled; Cisco Fabric Services distribution cannot be disabled for SDV.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 89
Which of these statements about SCSI Device Virtualization (SDV) is true?
A. SDV should be enabled on all switches in the fabric.
B. When using SDV, targets must reside on Cisco MDS switches, but initiators can reside on non-MDS switches.
C. A SDV virtualized device cannot be part of an IVR zone or zone set.
D. Virtual device names should be unique within each VSAN.
E. You can specify the same primary device for different virtual devices.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 90
Which of these statements correctly identifies the location of the data virtual target, control virtual target, and virtual initiator host in SANTap Proxy Mode-2?
A. The DVT and CVT reside in the switch, while the VI resides in the appliance. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-040
B. The DVT and VI reside in the switch, while the CVT resides in the appliance.
C. The DVT and VI reside in the appliance, while the CVT resides in the switch.
D. The DVT, CVT, and VI reside in the switch.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 91
The SANTap feature can be provisioned on which MDS hardware?
A. any Generation 2 line card module
B. Storage Services Module
C. Supervisor-1 module
D. Supervisor-1 or Supervisor-2 module
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 92
All of these statements about a SANTap session are correct except which one?
A. It is created in-band (over Fibre Channel) between a switch and an appliance.
B. it can only be created, started, stopped, quiesced, or deleted from an appliance.
C. A session is not required for the switch to split write I/O to an appliance.
D. It represents an initiator-target-LUN (ITL) triplet for a LUN loaded on a DVT.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 93
What is required in order to deploy SANTap between Host-1 and Storage-1?
A. both Host-1 and Storage-1 must be physically connected to a Services Module
B. only Host-1 must be physically connected to a Services Module
C. only Storage-1 must be physically connected to a Services Module
D. neither Host-1 nor Storage-1 need to be physically connected to a Services Module

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 94
What does the following CLI configuration command accomplish? mds(config)# santap module 2 appl-vsan 10
A. creates a Data Virtual Target (DVT) on module 2; The DVT will appear in VSAN 10
B. creates a Control Virtual Target (CVT) on module 2; The CVT will appear in VSAN 10
C. applies the SANTap configuration found on the module 2 modflash to VSAN 10
D. enables the SANTap feature on module 2 PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-040

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 95
Which three of these are optional parameters when configuring iSCSI Server Load Balancing initiator targets if the target is offline? (Choose three.)
A. secondary pWWN
B. LUN mapping
C. VSAN
D. primary pWWN
E. VRRP

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 96
When configuring iSNS Cloud Discovery, which version of Cisco MDS SAN-OS is required for Cisco Fabric Services distribution to operate correctly?
A. 2.01(1)
B. 2.0(2)
C. 2.1(1)
D. 3.0(1)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 97
Which two of these criteria will allow a Cisco MDS switch to interoperate in interop mode 4? (Choose two.)
A. VSAN WWN must contain McDATA OUI 07:00:70
B. VSAN WWN must contain McDATA OUI 08:00:88
C. static domain IDs should be configured for the range 1-31
D. static domain IDs should be configured for the range 97-127
E. zone members cannot be specified using FC alias

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 98
On a Cisco MDS 9000 switch configured for legacy switch interop mode 2, which three of these is true when configuring zoning? (Choose three.)
A. zone members must be defined by pWWN
B. zone members must be defined by nWWN PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-040
C. zone set and zone names cannot use the “$” or “-” symbols
D. only the active zone set is propagated
E. the default zone policy changes to permit

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 99
On a Cisco MDS 9000 switch running SAN OS 3.x, VSAN 3 has been configured in interoperability mode
4. Based on the command outputs below, why would the connectivity between the MDS switch and the McDATA switch fail? MDS# show vsan 3 vsan 3 information name:VSAN0003 state:active interoperability mode:4 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid operational state:up MDS# show fcdomain vsan 3 The local switch is the Principal Switch. Local switch run time information: State: Stable Local switch WWN: 2b:c0:00:0c:85:e9:d2:c1 Running fabric name: 2b:c0:00:0c:85:e9:d2:c1 Running priority: 128 Current domain ID: 0x0a(10)
A. VSANs in interoperability mode 4 should be configured with “loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id”
B. the configured domain ID is not in the range 97-127
C. VSAN 3 WWN does not contain the McDATA OUI
D. the MDS is the principal switch, which is not allowed in interoperability mode 4

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 100
Which of these is the correct VSAN configuration to connect a Cisco MDS switch to a Brocade running in Native mode with core pid =1?
A. MDS(config-vsan-db)# vsan x interop 1
B. MDS(config-vsan-db)# vsan x interop 2
C. MDS(config-vsan-db)# vsan x interop 3
D. MDS(config-vsan-db)# vsan x interop 4
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 101
Which two features are supported when connecting a Cisco MDS SAN-OS 3.0.1 or newer
PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-040
switch to another vendor switch? (Choose two.)
A. full zone set distribution
B. active zone set distribution
C. IVR between the interoperability VSAN and a native VSAN
D. trunking between the third party switch and the MDS
E. port channels
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 102
Which two of these are required for interoperability mode 4? (Choose two.)
A. IVR
B. QoS
C. Enterprise license package
D. an interoperability-qualified version of Cisco MDS SAN-OS
E. an interoperability-qualified version of Brocade FoS
F. unique IDs for all VSANs sharing fabric services with a third party switch

Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 103
Which three of these statements about PortChannel are correct? (Choose three.)
A. You can delete or change the membership to an automatically created PortChannel.
B. You cannot delete or change the membership of an automatically created PortChannel.
C. When you disable the autocreation feature, all member ports are removed from the automatically created PortChannel.
D. You can enable or disable the autocreation feature on a per-port basis or for all ports in the switch.
E. Autocreation can be enabled in the local port and disabled on the peer ports and the switch will still be able to automatically negotiate the PortChannel parameters.

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 104
Which two of these statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Up to 256 VSANs can be configured in a switch.
B. In a switch there is one default VSAN, which is VSAN 1.
C. The isolated VSAN is VSAN 4093.
D. The user specified VSAN ID range is from 1-4092. PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-040

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 105
Which three statements about Dynamic Port VSAN Membership (DPVM) are correct? (Choose three.)
A. DPVM configurations are only based on pWWN assignments.
B. DPVM retains the configured VSAN regardless of where a device is connected or moved.
C. DPVM uses Cisco Fabric Services to allow efficient database management and distribution.
D. The DPVM feature overrides any existing static port VSAN membership configuration.
E. DPVM is used to configure zones, IVR zones, or port security features.

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 106
Refer to the exhibit. One of your customers has two application servers that share the same storage device. One is an online transaction processing server that is processing a low volume of high priority jobs requiring fast response times from the storage device. The other is a backup server that is less sensitive to latency. In what order should you perform the following configuration steps to ensure that traffic from the online transaction processing server to the shared storage device takes priority over traffic from the backup server, in case of congestion?
1.
create a policy map on Switch 1 and Switch 2

2.
enable QoS on Switch 1 and Switch 2

3.
enable FCC on Switch 1 and Switch 2

4.
assign weights to the DWRR queues on Switch 1 and Switch 2

5.
create a class map on Switch 1 and Switch 2

6. assign the service policy

PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-040
A. 3-5-2-4-1-6
B. 2-3-1-4-5-6
C. 3-2-5-1-6-4
D. 2-3-1-5-4-6
E. 3-2-1-5-6-4

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 107
Which two of these are valid configurations for an IVR topology? (Choose two.)
A. Transit VSANs must be configured.
B. two border switches that are IVR-enabled between active IVR zone members with the same AFID
C. no transit VSAN is configured, even if two edge VSANs in an IVR zone overlap
D. in a fabric with Cisco MDS 9020 switches, the IVR application automatically adds the virtual domain to the assigned domain list from the remote VSAN

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 108
Which two statements correctly describe the Cisco MDS port tracking feature? (Choose two.)
A. It monitors and detects failures that cause topology changes only.
B. It monitors and detects failures that cause topology changes and brings down the links connecting the attached devices.
C. Fiber Channel, VSAN, PortChannel, FCIP, or Gigabit Ethernet ports can be configured as linked ports.
D. Fiber Channel, VSAN, PortChannel, FCIP, or Gigabit Ethernet ports can be configured as tracked ports.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 109
Which two statements about Autonomous Fabric ID database configuration are correct? (Choose two.)
A. You cannot use one AFID for all VSANs on the switch.
B. You can only use AFID database configuration when the VSAN topology is in automatic mode.
C. You can only use AFID database configuration when you manually configure the VSAN topology.
D. AFID configuration includes defining the VSAN WWN of the VSAN and the AFID that will be PassGuide.com-Make You Succeed To Pass IT Exams PassGuide 350-040 used in the AFID database.
E. AFID configuration includes defining the switch WWN of the switch and the AFID that will be used in the AFID database.

Correct Answer: BE

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