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QUESTION 77
Changing the VSAN policy to “vsan policy deny” and then entering “no vsan policy” will have what effect on the role being configured?
A. No effect on the role, every vsan can execute commands allowed by the “rule” command.
B. The role will be disabled due to conflicting configuration statements.
C. The role will require a “vsan permit” configured to define allowed VSANs.
D. No effect, the “vsan policy deny” is an invalid command option.
E. No effect, both commands are invalid.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 78
The purpose of the SW_ILS ELP frame is to:
A. Begin principal switch selection
B. Notify other switches they can now request domain IDs
C. Notify other switches that a principal switch has been elected
D. Exchange FSPF routing information
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 79
Click the Exhibit button. The host must see one instance of the LUN. If the primary IP path to the host fails, IO must recover with no user intervention. From the information shown in the exhibit, what is configured incorrectly on the MDS?
A. Secondary path of iSCSI Virtual Target must be in the same VSAN
B. VRRP must be configured on one chassis
C. Host must have multipathing software not to have two instance of lun at Host
D. iSCSI Virtual Target primary path must be the same on both chassis
E. iSCSI Virtual Target iqn name must be the same on both chassis
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 80
Select all of the primitive signals:
A. R_RDY
B. NOS
C. PLOGI
D. IDLE
E. LIP
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 81
FCIP Write Acceleration most effectively addresses which disaster recovery challenge?
A. Recovery Time Objective (time to recover)
B. Recovery Point Objective (time DR data is “behind” Production data)
C. Tape backup over the WAN
D. Load balancing
E. Bandwidth constraints
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 82
What command would be entered to restart VSAN 100 ?
A. no vsan 100 start; vsan 100 start
B. no vsan 100 resume; vsan 100 resume
C. vsan 100 restart non-disruptive
D. vsan 100 restart disruptive
E. vsan 100 suspend; no vsan 100 suspend
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 83
You have a Host that needs to find all target devices that supports SCSI in the fabric. What is the D_ID of the frame to query for this information?
A. 0xFFFFFA
B. 0xFFFFFC
C. 0xFFFFFD
D. 0xFFFFFF
E. 0xFFFFFE
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 84
To capture all of the RSCN traffic originating from a standalone switch with no free ports, what should be utilized?
A. SPAN
B. REMOTE SPAN
C. Ethereal with PAA
D. debug rscn events initiators vsan 1000
E. MDS fcanalyzer
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 85
When using IVR traversing a FCIP link, what is not required?
A. Transit VSAN over FCIP link
B. Two or more VSANs in configuration
C. InterVSAN zoneset active for host to access storage
D. Border switch will be member of at least two VSANs
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 86
What answer has the correct order of steps to configure QoS for Data Traffic?
A. Enable the QoS feature, create and define class maps, adjust DWRR weights if necessary, apply configuration, create a policy map.
B. Enable the FCC feature, create and define class maps, create a policy map, apply the configuration, adjust DWRR weights if necessary
C. Enable the QoS feature, create a policy map, create and define class maps, apply the configuration, Adjust DWRR weights if necessary
D. Enable the FCC feature, create a policy map, create and define class maps, apply the configuration, Adjust DWRR weights if necessary
E. Enable the QoS feature, create and define class maps, create a policy map, apply the configuration, adjust DWRR weights if necessary
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 87
FC protocol is a layered protocol consisting of several layers. Identify these layers in proper order of FC-0 to FC-4:
A. Media Layer, Encode/Decode Layer, Framing & Control Layer, Common Services Layer, Upper Level Protocol Layer
B. Encode/Decode Layer, Media Layer, Framing & Control Layer, Common Services Layer, Upper Level Protocol Layer
C. Framing & Control Layer, Encode/Decode Layer, Media Layer, Common Services Layer, Upper Level Protocol Layer
D. Upper Level Protocol Layer, Common Services Layer, Framing & Control Layer, Encode/Decode Layer, Media Layer
E. Media Layer, Framing & Control Layer, Encode/Decode Layer, Common Services Layer, Upper Level Protocol Layer
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 88
9509 has one IPS-8 line card installed in slot 1, and a 16-port line card installed in slot 3. What is the FICON port number of interface fc 3/3?
A. 0x42
B. 0x43
C. 0x22
D. 0x23
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 89
What settings would be required on a MDS9000 switch for proper use of a PAA?
A. PAA requires a TE port to connect and must be in its own VSAN.
B. PAA requires an SD port and must be it its own VSAN.
C. PAA requires an ethernet connection to the MDS supervisor.
D. PAA requires an SD port connection.
E. PAA requires ST and SD ports.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 90
What term is used to identify the special characters used in Fibre Channel Encoding?
A. K28.5
B. 8b/10b
C. 3b/4b
D. D28.5
E. idle
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 91
Correct Fibre Channel Point to Point network topologies are::
A. A host connected to a storage array
B. A host connected directly to a Fibre Channel hub
C. A host connected to a host
D. A Fibre Channel Hub connected to a Fibre Channel Switch
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 92
Given: Host——-MDS SwitchA————-MDS switchB———-Storage Array with an FC Analyzer connected to Switch B What port types are required to be configured on the switches in this network for proper use of SPAN to monitor traffic flow from host to storage array?
A. ST port on switchA and a SD port on switchB
B. SD port on switchA and a ST port on switchB
C. SD ports on both switchA and on switchB
D. Span port on switch A and a TE port on switchB
E. ST ports on both switchA and switchB
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 93
You are connecting 2 existing Fabrics. Fabric 1 has Domains 97,100. Fabric 2 has Domains 100 and 101. When an ISL is connected between the 2 Fabrics, the new Domain IDs for the newly merged Fabric are 97, 100, 101, 102. What SW_ILS command is generated to allow for the switches to accept a new domain ID?
A. BF
B. RCF
C. ELP
D. EFP
E. ESC
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 94
There are three different roles on the MDS: Role1 allows show commands only. Role2 allows debug and configure commands, and denies show command. Role 3 permits VSAN 10-30 only. User1 belongs to Role1, Role2 and Role3. What can User1 do?
A. Show, debug, configure on all VSAN
B. Debug and configure commands only on all VSAN
C. Debug and configuration commands on VSAN 10-30
D. Show, debug, and configure on VSAN 10-30
E. Show, debug, configure and save configuration on VSAN 10-30
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 95
What is NOT a capability of RBAC in the MDS?
A. Define roles with specific allowed commands to be executed by users within these roles
B. Allowed to synchronize to a RADIUS server for user access and authentication
C. To define roles on a per VSAN basis
D. Have three define roles and operations access created (Security Administrator, SAN Administrator and SAN Operator)
E. Create rules for commands on a physical port level
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 96
What is the correct configuration to place initiator ABC.iqn into VSANs 3 and 66 only?
A. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn vsan 3 66
B. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn vsan 3 – 66
C. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn no vsan 1 vsan 3 vsan 66
D. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn vsan 3 vsan 66
E. iscsi initiator name ABC.iqn vsan member vsan 3,66
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 97
Which are requirements to configure FCIP on a MDS FC Switch?
A. Active entitlement for SAN Extention Over IP
B. FCIP feature enabled
C. Fabric Manager and use of FCIP Tunnel Wizard
D. Working WAN connection between both endpoints
E. Proper bandwidth settings on the FCIP profile
Correct Answer: AB

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